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Why does 1 ad work orally, not 4 ad?

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    Why does 1 ad work orally, not 4 ad?

    I ad is most commonly taken in cap form and many people say they take 3 to 6 caps and it works great for them. And everyone says 4 ad must be taken transdermally or in doses of 1 to 1.5g orally. My question is why isn't the 1 ad subject to the same amount of destruction by the liver and stomach?
    In other words why does 1 ad work orally at 600mg, but not 4 ad?
    Or is it just that 1 testosterone is needed in smaller quantities than testosterone. Or the conversion of 1 ad to 1 test occurs at a higher rate than the conversion of 4 ad to test?
    Anyone want to tackle this one?
    "I don't like small cars or real big women, but somehow I always find myself in 'em" - KR

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    Im not positive but I think the reason different compounds bioavailability differs is dependant via the enzyme it is converted

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    A double bond in the one position(carbon) (hence the name 1-testosterone) ensures a greater amount surviving without the risk of liver toxicity of 17aa steriods.






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